The Word Was God – John 1:1c

John 1:1 says, “In the beginning was the word (logos), and the word (logos) was with God, and the word (logos) was God”. The precise word order of the Greek text actually says, “and God was the word” rather than “and the word was God”. It is hard to imagine that the use of the word God appearing twice in John 1:1 would be a different God Person from the only true God the Father Himself.

There are two scripturally sound explanations to show how God’s word (logos) can be called God Himself in John 1:1 which are both true.


We know that the scriptures state that God expressed His divine plan for the ages before the beginning of human time. Isaiah 41:4 states that God called forth “the generations from the beginning” i.e. all generations of human history. The apostle Peter wrote in 1 Peter 1:20 that Christ was, “foreknown before the creation of the world”. Hence, all things about the Son of God were already “foreknown” and expressed by God before the beginning of human time. This is why the apostle John was led to use the Greek word “logos” in John 1:1.

The context of Heb. 1:8-9 is a Messianic prophecy from Psalm 45:6-7 which says that the Messiah would be called “God” while also having a God. For the scriptures affirm that the Son of God would be exalted by God to sit on “the throne of God” (Rev. 22:3) which inspired scripture reveals is the throne of David (as the throne of Yahweh - 1 Chronicles 29:23). Psalm 45:6-7 and Heb. 1:8-9 could not be addressing a pre-incarnate God the Son because the text says, “your God has anointed you”. If a pre-incarnate God the Son had a God and was anointed by his God before the incarnation, then that Son would be an Arian Son rather than a Trinitarian Son.

Wherefore, Jesus as a child born and son given was already called “God” in God's logos (His expressed thought) before his virgin conception and birth. The human child born and son given can also be called “God” because he was the reproduced copy of the Father's Being as a fully complete human being (Heb. 1:3; Heb. 2:17). This explains why Jesus as the expressed thought of God (logos) was already addressed by the Psalmist as God when he wrote, “Your throne O God”. For God as God is “the only true God” the Father, but God also became a true man who would also be called “God with us” (Matthew 1:23) in the prophetic future.


1 John 1:5 states that “… God IS LIGHT, and in Him is no darkness”. This is the same thing as saying that “The Word WAS GOD” in John 1:1. God’s word (logos) is the expressed thought of Himself as an aspect or attribute of Himself just like “God is light” expresses the fact that “light” is an aspect or attribute of God Himself.

It would be ridiculous for anyone to suggest that “God is light” in 1 John 1:5 proves that the light of God is another distinct divine person beside Himself called God the Light Person. Likewise, no reasonable person should suggest that God’s “LIGHT DWELLS WITH GOD” in Daniel 2:22 and “God IS LIGHT” in 1 John 1:5 proves that the light of God is another distinct divine person beside Himself called “God The Light”. In like manner, no reasonable person can affirm that the “WORD WAS WITH GOD” in John 1:1 proves that the Word “with God” is a distinct God the word (logos = “expressed thought”) Person as a distinct divine person beside Himself.

In like manner, 1 John 4:8 says, “Whoever does not love does not know God, because GOD IS LOVE”. God is Love and God is Light just as “God was the word” in John 1:1. God’s word is “living” according to Hebrews 4:12 and God’s word is “spirit and life” according to John 6:63. Hence, God’s word (logos) is an aspect or attribute of Himself just like God is Light and God is Love. Wherefore, Trinitarians depend upon a great deal of imaginative eisegesis in their conception of an alleged God the word Person in John 1:1 as there is no evidence to show that the word of God (the expressed thought of God) is another distinct divine person beside God Himself.

The prophet Daniel wrote in Daniel 2:22 that God, “knows what is in the darkness, and THE LIGHT DWELLS WITH HIM (NASB).”

Moreover, the “word” that was “with God” is translated from the Greek word “logos” which literally means, the “expressed thought” of a person. The Greek word “logos” has everything to do with the expressed thought of a person, but nothing to do with actually being a person. Hence, to say that the “Logos” of God is another coequal God Person who was always with God the Father is the same thing as saying that a distinct God the expressed thought Person is with another distinct God Person. If this was the case, then God the Father would have no logos (expressed thought) of His own because the Son would be a God the Logos (God the “expressed thought”) Person. Such an assumption is utterly ridiculous, as God’s thought cannot be another distinct God Person beside Himself.

When Trinitarians affirm that there was always a timeless God the Word Person, they are really saying that there was always a timeless God the expressed Thought Person. However, the Greek word “logos” never means a distinct person anywhere in the Greek New Testament. God's expressed thought (his logos) can also be called God by the definition of the word “logos” because the invisible God's expressed thoughts are spiritual and living (Heb. 4:12 / John 6:63).

The apostle John clarified what he meant in John 1:1 by affirming that the word (logos) was “THAT WHICH WAS from the beginning” in 1 John 1:1 (Not he who was from the beginning), because the Greek word for word is “logos” which means the “expressed thought” of a person rather than being another person. For just as the expressed thought of a human being would be called a “that” rather than another “he” person, so God the Father’s expressed thought about His “foreknown” Son (1 Peter 1:20) was an impersonal that before becoming a person when “the word (logos) was made flesh” (John 1:14). Thus we can see that Jesus as the Son of God is an extension of the Father Himself revealed as a child born and son given when the word of God the Father was made flesh as the living and breathing Messiah. For God as God the Father outside of the incarnation also became a true man inside of the incarnation by His own word that was made flesh (John 1:1, 14) and by His own Holy Spirit who descended upon the virgin to become the Christ child (Luke 1:35; Matthew 1:20).

If the word (logos) of God was always a distinct person before the word was made flesh, why then was the word of God called a “that which was from the beginning” rather than a “he” who was from the beginning in 1 John 1:1? For no one calls a living person a “that”. Only an impersonal thing or thought can be called a “that”. Therefore the “foreknown” (1 Peter 1:20) Son of God was called a “that which was from the beginning” in the mind and plan of God before the word (the expressed thought of God) was made flesh via his virgin conception.


Scholar Bart D. Ehrman exposed Trinitarian influence in Bible translations when he said, “Erasmus who produced the first Greek New Testament without the trinity in 1516 was forced by the priests to put the trinity in a new edition that was later translated into the King James Version of the Bible (Jesus, Interrupted pp.186-187, The Orthodox Corruption of Scripture / Metzger's The Text of the New Testament, page 101-102).”

William Tyndale was the first Greek scholar to translate Erasmus’ Greek text directly into English in 1516. Tyndale had originally translated 1 John 1:2-3 as “it was in the beginning with God”, but later Trinitarian influence caused the King James Version to read, “He was in the beginning with God.” Thus, Trinitarian translations have incorrectly supposed that the word of God in John 1:1 is another divine person beside God Himself. That is why they translated John 1:2-3 as “He who was in the beginning with God” rather than “This” or “It was in the beginning with God”.

The word “He” has been incorrectly translated in John 1:2-3 from the Greek words “houtos/autos” which are normally translated as “THIS” or “IT” throughout the New Testament Scriptures. Thus the text should read, “This/It [houtos] was in the beginning with God. All things came into being through [autos = THIS/IT] this/it, and apart from this/it [autos = THIS/IT] nothing came into being that has come into being”.

The Greek words “houtos” and “autos” function the same as the English words “THIS” or “IT”. Like the English words “THIS” or “IT”, they can refer to either an inanimate object or a person. The context in which these words are used will determine if the words should refer to a person or to an inanimate object. Since there is nothing in the text of John 1:1-3 to prove that the “Logos” of God is another distinct God the Son Person beside Himself, the text should be translated as “this” or “it” rather than “He”.


The Greek word “logos” is used more than 300 times in the Greek New Testament. This same word (logos) is also used for the word of man as well as the word of God. For example, Mark 5:35-36 states that Jesus “heard the word (logos) which was spoken” by the messengers from the ruler of the synagogues house “who said, your daughter is dead, why trouble the teacher (Jesus) any further?” Matthew 22:46 also states that “no one was able to speak a word (logos)” against Jesus.

Furthermore, the word “LOGOS” is used in many other passages of scripture which clearly prove that the word “logos” refers to God’s logical plan and purpose rather than to a person. For example, Matthew 13:18-19 (ESV):

“Hear then the parable of the sower: When anyone hears the word [logos] of the kingdom and does not understand it, the evil one comes and snatches away what has been sown in his heart. This is what was sown along the path.”

The original Greek word for “WORD” was translated from the Greek word “LOGOS” in the above passage of scripture. This same Greek word “LOGOS” is also used in John 1:1. Could anyone say that “the WORD (logos) of the kingdom” is another person beside God? Obviously not! The WORD of the kingdom is the “reasoning, logic, or thought” of God which includes His purpose and plan of the kingdom - as demonstrated by the fact that people might “not understand it”.

In like manner, Paul wrote that the heretical “word” (logos) of Hymenaeus and Philetus would “spread like gangrene (2 Tim. 2:17)”. Could the word (logos) of these two false teachers have become another distinct person beside them? If not, then the word (logos) of the only true God could not be a distinct person beside Himself.


Some Trinitarians err by alleging that “pros” (meaning “with”), being linked to the word “logos” in John 1:1 means that the word of God was “face to face” with God. Dr. Luginbill (a Trinitarian Greek scholar) commented on the “face to face” argument commonly used by Trinitarians in his online blog, saying,

“ … I don't much like ‘face to face’ because it is so anthropomorphic, and because John could easily have said prosopon pros prosopon (literally, “face to face”) had he wanted to (it is a very common NT usage). After all, we too who are most definitely not divine will "see Him face to face (prosopon pros prosopon)” (1 Cor. 13:12; 1 Jn. 3:2).

The apostle John clearly used “pros ton theon” in John 1:1 which has the connotation of “pertaining to” or “relating to God” as well as being “with God” rather than “prosopon pros prosopon” in Greek which literally means “face to face”. The apostle Paul used the Greek words “prosopon pros prosopon” in 1 Corinthians 13:12 which literally means, “face to face”. If the words “face to face” is what God wanted to convey in the divine revelation then why did He not inspire the apostle John to use these Greek words (prosopon pros prospon = “face to face”) in John 1:1? Therefore Trinitarians who claim that “pros ton theon” somehow means “face to face” in John 1:1 have no scriptural basis for their claim as “prosopon pros prosopon” are the Greek words which mean “face to face”.

The Greek word “Logos” translated as “Word” is the source of our English word “logic”. Logos literally means “reasoning, logic, thought, or speech”. How could God the Father be face to face with logic or speech as another god person? If the Word of God was a pre-existent Son Person, then why did not the divine revelation just say, “In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was God”?

The clear meaning of the original Greek text in John 1:1 proves that the “logic, thought, or speech” of God pertains to God the Father (pros ton theon – Heb. 5:1) Himself just as a man’s own logic, thought, or speech pertains to himself. Therefore the word (“expressed thought”) that was with God from the beginning was also called God because God would also become a true man through the virgin. For in God’s expressed thought, Jesus was already born and slain before the creation of the word long before he would actually be born and slain (Col. 1:15; Rev. 13:8). For our God miraculously has the ability to utter things which do not yet exist as if they already existed: As it is written, God “calls the things which be not as though they were” (Rom. 4:17).

Moreover, God’s word (His expressed thought) is “living” (Heb. 4:12) and is “spirit and life” (John 6:63) because God’s expressed thought is an attribute of Himself just as 1st John says that “God is Love” and “God is Light”. For just as God’s Love and God’s Light are not literally distinct coequal God Persons beside Himself, so God can be called the word without that word literally being a distinct coequal divine God Person beside Himself. In this sense God’s word can be called God in John 1:1 (“And God was the word”).